Daijiworld Media Network – New Delhi

New Delhi, Nov 20: The Supreme Court’s five-judge Constitution bench, headed by Chief Justice B R Gavai, is set to pronounce its much-awaited judgment on Thursday on President Droupadi Murmu’s reference seeking clarity on whether specific timelines can be imposed on Governors and the President for granting assent to state bills.

The verdict comes nearly three months after the bench reserved its judgment on September 11, following a marathon ten-day hearing during which the court heard exhaustive arguments from the Centre, multiple state governments, political leaders, parties and other respondents.

The Constitution bench, led by CJI Gavai, also comprises Justices Surya Kant, Vikram Nath, P S Narasimha and A S Chandurkar—four of the senior-most judges of the apex court.

The controversy traces back to an April 8 ruling delivered by a two-judge bench of Justices J B Pardiwala and R Mahadevan in a case involving the State of Tamil Nadu and the Governor. The bench had held that a Governor must act within three months when withholding assent or reserving a bill, and within one month when the bill is re-enacted by the state legislature. It further stated that the President should decide on bills reserved by Governors within three months of receiving such references.

Challenging this ruling, President Murmu invoked her powers under the rarely used Article 143(1) and approached the Supreme Court on May 13, calling for clarity on 14 significant questions of law. The Presidential Reference argued that the issues raised were of “such nature and public importance” that the Supreme Court’s authoritative opinion was essential.

The court’s decision on Thursday is expected to have far-reaching implications on the legislative process, federal functioning, and the balance of powers between elected governments and constitutional heads.